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77 terms · plain English

NMC Nursing Glossary

The clinical tools, procedures, professional standards and UK law behind the NMC exams and everyday nursing practice, defined in plain English. Every term links to a free chapter across the CBT, OSCE and revalidation courses.

A

Abbey Pain Scale

An observational pain tool for people who cannot self-report, such as those with advanced dementia.

It scores signs such as facial expression, body language, vocalisation and physical changes. It is used when a person cannot describe their pain, so that pain is not missed simply because it is not spoken.

Pain assessment OSCE station

ABCDE assessment

A systematic way to assess an acutely unwell patient: Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Disability, Exposure.

You work through the letters in order, because that is the order in which problems kill fastest, and you treat each life-threatening problem as you find it before moving on. You reassess after every intervention and call for senior help early.

ABCDE practice questions

Advance decision to refuse treatment (ADRT)

A legally binding refusal of a specified treatment, made in advance for a time when the person may lack capacity.

A valid and applicable ADRT must be followed, and one refusing life-sustaining treatment must be written, signed and witnessed. It differs from an advance statement of wishes, which guides but does not bind.

Consent scenario questions

ANTT (aseptic non-touch technique)

A method for dressing changes and clinical procedures that protects the key parts from contamination by not touching them directly.

ANTT keeps the wound and the parts of the equipment that will contact it clean, reducing the risk of introducing infection. It is the standard technique for wound dressings and invasive procedures.

Wound care practice questions

APIE (Assessment, Planning, Implementation, Evaluation)

The four-stage nursing process the OSCE APIE scenarios are built around: assess, plan, implement, then evaluate care.

Each stage is marked separately in the OSCE, so a candidate can pass some stations and fail others. Evaluation is the stage most often rushed, yet it is where you show the care plan was reviewed against the patient's goals.

OSCE assessment station

Aseptic key parts

The parts of the equipment and wound that must stay sterile during a procedure, protected by not touching them.

Key parts include syringe tips, needle hubs, and the wound bed itself. ANTT works by identifying these before you start and keeping them untouched, using sterile gloves or a non-touch method as the risk requires.

ANTT OSCE station

AVPU scale

A rapid check of consciousness: Alert, responds to Voice, responds to Pain, Unresponsive.

It is a quick alternative to the Glasgow Coma Scale for a first assessment, and feeds the consciousness element of NEWS2. A patient responding only to pain, or unresponsive, needs urgent escalation and airway attention.

Neurological assessment and GCS questions

B

Best interests

A structured decision made for a person who lacks capacity, weighing their wishes, feelings, beliefs and values.

Under the Mental Capacity Act, a best interests decision is not simply what staff think is clinically ideal. It considers the person’s past and present wishes, consults those close to them, and chooses the least restrictive option.

Mental Capacity Act questions

BMI (body mass index)

Weight in kilograms divided by height in metres squared, used as a screen for weight category.

Adult bands: below 18.5 underweight, 18.5–24.9 healthy, 25–29.9 overweight, 30 and above obese. BMI is a screen, not a full picture, and is read alongside other information.

BMI calculation questions

BNF (British National Formulary)

The UK reference for medicines: doses, side effects, interactions and safety information.

The BNF is the standard UK drug formulary. International nurses preparing for the CBT are expected to become familiar with UK drug names and the BNF, which differ from the formularies they may have trained on.

Bristol Stool Chart

A scale describing stool from type 1 to type 7, giving staff an objective way to record it.

Types 1 and 2 (hard lumps) suggest constipation, types 3 and 4 are normal, and types 6 and 7 (mushy or liquid) suggest diarrhoea.

Bowel care practice questions

C

Catheter specimen of urine (CSU)

A urine sample taken from the catheter sampling port using aseptic technique, never from the drainage bag.

The port is cleaned, the tubing may be briefly clamped to collect fresh urine, and the sample is drawn with a syringe. Taking urine from the bag instead gives a stagnant, unreliable sample.

Catheter specimen OSCE station

CAUTI (catheter-associated urinary tract infection)

A urinary infection linked to an indwelling catheter, and a leading healthcare-associated infection.

Prevention means catheterising only when indicated, inserting aseptically, keeping a closed drainage system with the bag below the bladder, and removing the catheter as soon as it is no longer needed.

Catheter care practice questions

CBT (Computer Based Test)

Part 1 of the NMC Test of Competence, sat by internationally trained nurses at a Pearson VUE centre.

The CBT has two sections in one four-hour sitting: Part A numeracy (15 questions) and Part B clinical (105+ questions across the seven Future Nurse platforms). Part A and Part B are passed separately.

NMC CBT Question Bank

Clinical audit

Measuring current practice against an agreed standard to improve care, then re-auditing to check it worked.

The audit cycle sets a standard, measures practice, identifies gaps, makes changes, and re-audits. Audit differs from research: audit asks whether we are doing what we should; research asks what we should be doing.

Clinical audit questions

Confirmer

The person who confirms you have met the revalidation requirements, usually your line manager.

The NMC recommends the confirmer is your line manager, and an NMC registrant where possible. They check your hours, CPD, feedback, reflections and discussion, but they are not signing off your clinical competence.

What your confirmer verifies

Continuing professional development (CPD)

Learning that keeps your practice current; revalidation requires 35 hours over three years, 20 of them participatory.

CPD must be relevant to your scope of practice and recorded with evidence such as certificates or reflective notes. It maps to the NMC Code, and the NMC may audit a sample of registrants for it.

The 35-hour CPD requirement

Controlled drugs

Medicines with extra legal controls, such as strong opioids, stored and recorded under strict rules.

Controlled drugs are kept in a locked cabinet, recorded in the CD register with a running balance, and usually checked and witnessed by two people. Any discrepancy is reported immediately, not simply corrected.

Controlled drugs questions

D

Delegation

Asking another worker to carry out a task while you remain accountable for the decision to delegate.

You must be satisfied the person is competent for the task and adequately supervised, and that the task is appropriate to delegate. Accountability for the delegation decision stays with the registered nurse, even though the worker is responsible for their own actions.

Delegation and accountability questions

Displacement value

The volume a powdered drug takes up when it dissolves, which must be accounted for when reconstituting.

When you add diluent to a powdered drug, the powder itself adds to the final volume. Ignoring the displacement value gives the wrong concentration, which matters most for small paediatric doses.

Reconstitution questions

DKA (diabetic ketoacidosis)

A medical emergency, most often in type 1 diabetes, with high glucose, ketones and deep rapid breathing.

Signs include high blood glucose, ketones, thirst, vomiting, abdominal pain, deep rapid breathing and a fruity smell on the breath. People with type 1 diabetes always need some background insulin, even when not eating, to avoid DKA.

Diabetes and insulin questions

DNACPR (do not attempt CPR)

A decision that cardiopulmonary resuscitation will not be attempted if the person’s heart stops.

A DNACPR decision applies only to CPR. All other care continues, including symptom control, comfort, hydration and dignity. Treating DNACPR as a reason to withdraw other treatment is a common and serious error.

End of life care questions

DoLS (Deprivation of Liberty Safeguards)

A legal process authorising restrictions that deprive a person lacking capacity of their liberty in their best interests.

DoLS applies in hospitals and care homes when a person who lacks capacity is under continuous supervision and not free to leave, and it must be formally authorised. It exists to make sure such restrictions are lawful, necessary and proportionate.

Mental Capacity Act questions

Drip set factor

The number of drops per millilitre a giving set delivers: 20 for standard fluids, 15 for blood, 60 for micro sets.

The drip set factor is a property of the giving set, not the prescription. The drops-per-minute formula is (volume in mL × drip set factor) ÷ time in minutes.

IV drip rate questions

Duty of candour

The duty to be open and honest with patients when something goes wrong with their care.

You tell the person what happened as soon as reasonably practicable, apologise, and explain what will be done. An apology is not an admission of legal liability, and candour applies even when no harm occurred.

Duty of candour questions

F

Five rights of medication

The safety checks before giving a medicine: right patient, right drug, right dose, right route, right time.

The five rights are a minimum check, often extended to include right documentation and the patient's right to refuse. Working through them before every administration is a core defence against medication error.

The 5 rights of medication administration

Fluid balance chart

A record of everything a patient takes in and puts out over 24 hours, used to spot dehydration or overload.

Intake covers oral, intravenous and feed volumes; output covers urine, vomit, drains and stoma losses. The running balance guides fluid decisions, and a low urine output is an early warning of deterioration.

Fluid balance OSCE station

Fraser guidelines

The criteria under which a competent under-16 can be given contraceptive advice without parental consent.

The young person must understand the advice, cannot be persuaded to tell a parent, is likely to have sex regardless, and their health may suffer without it. Distinct from Gillick competence, which is the broader capacity of an under-16 to consent to their own treatment.

Sexual health questions

Future Nurse platforms

The seven domains of nursing competence in the NMC standards, which Part B of the CBT is blueprinted against.

The platforms are: being an accountable professional; promoting health; assessing needs and planning care; providing and evaluating care; leading and managing care; improving safety and quality; and coordinating care. The CBT bank’s Parts B1–B7 map onto them.

The 7 platforms explained

G

GCS (Glasgow Coma Scale)

A score of conscious level from 3 to 15, across eye opening (out of 4), verbal (out of 5) and motor (out of 6).

The lowest possible score is 3, not 0, because each component scores a minimum of 1. A GCS of 8 or below signals the person may not protect their own airway and needs urgent assessment.

GCS practice questions

Gibbs' reflective cycle

A six-stage model for structured reflection: description, feelings, evaluation, analysis, conclusion and action plan.

It is one of the models nurses use to write reflective accounts, prompting you to move from what happened to what you will change. Rolfe's simpler what/so what/now what model is a common alternative.

Gibbs vs Rolfe reflective model

Gillick competence

The test of whether a child under 16 has enough understanding to consent to their own treatment.

A child judged Gillick competent can consent to treatment without parental involvement. It is broader than the Fraser guidelines, which concern contraceptive and sexual health advice specifically.

Consent scenario questions

Granulation tissue

Healthy red, moist tissue that fills a healing wound from the base upwards, a sign that repair is progressing.

Granulation tissue is bumpy and pinkish-red, and it bleeds easily because it is rich in new blood vessels. Seeing it at the wound bed usually means healing is on track, whereas pale or dusky tissue suggests poor perfusion.

Wound assessment OSCE station

H

Health and character declaration

A revalidation declaration confirming you are of good health and character to practise safely.

You must declare relevant matters such as cautions, convictions or determinations by another regulator. Health is judged on whether, with any reasonable adjustments, you can practise safely, not on the presence of a condition itself.

Health and character declaration

Human factors

How people interact with systems, equipment and each other, and how design and culture make error more or less likely.

A human factors approach treats errors as system problems to be designed out, rather than individual failings to be punished. Checklists, standardisation and a culture of speaking up are core tools.

Human factors questions

Hypoglycaemia

A blood glucose below 4 mmol/L, often remembered as “four is the floor”.

In a conscious patient it is treated with fast-acting carbohydrate, rechecked after 15 minutes, then followed by longer-acting carbohydrate. Untreated, it can cause seizures, unconsciousness and death.

Diabetes and insulin questions

M

Making Every Contact Count (MECC)

Using each routine patient contact as an opportunity to encourage a healthier choice.

A dressing change or a blood pressure check can include a few words about smoking, alcohol or activity. MECC is brief, opportunistic health promotion woven into everyday care.

Health promotion questions

Medicines reconciliation

Checking a patient’s medicines are accurate and complete at a transition of care, catching omissions or errors.

It compares what the patient was taking with what is now prescribed. Transitions between settings are a common point for medication error, which is why reconciliation matters at every move, not just admission.

Transitions of care questions

Mental Capacity Act 2005

The law governing decisions for people aged 16 and over who may be unable to make a particular decision.

Its five principles: assume capacity; support the person to decide; an unwise decision is not incapacity; act in best interests if they lack capacity; choose the least restrictive option. Capacity is decision-specific and time-specific.

Mental Capacity Act questions

Midstream specimen of urine (MSU)

A urine sample collected mid-flow to reduce contamination, used to test for urinary tract infection.

The person passes the first part of the stream into the toilet, then catches the middle portion in a sterile container. Careful technique matters because a contaminated sample can produce a misleading culture result.

MSSU collection OSCE station

MUST (Malnutrition Universal Screening Tool)

A five-step screen for malnutrition risk using BMI, unplanned weight loss and acute illness.

The scores give a total: 0 is low risk, 1 medium, and 2 or more high risk, each with a matched care plan. A normal BMI does not rule out risk if the person has stopped eating.

MUST screening questions

N

Never event

A serious, largely preventable patient safety incident that should not happen if the right measures are in place.

Examples include surgery on the wrong site, the wrong route for a medicine, and a retained instrument. Never events are always reported and investigated.

Incident reporting questions

NEWS2 (National Early Warning Score 2)

A score that adds up six vital signs to flag deterioration early, triggering escalation as it rises.

It scores respiratory rate, oxygen saturation, systolic blood pressure, pulse, consciousness and temperature, plus supplemental oxygen. A single score of 3 in one parameter triggers escalation even when the total looks low.

NEWS2 scoring questions

NG tube pH check

Testing aspirate from a nasogastric tube before use; a pH of 5.5 or below confirms safe gastric placement.

The aspirate is tested on pH indicator paper, and only a reading of 5.5 or below allows feeding or medicines through the tube. If the pH is higher or no aspirate is obtained, placement is rechecked, sometimes by X-ray, before the tube is used.

NG tube insertion OSCE station

NMC (Nursing and Midwifery Council)

The UK regulator for nurses, midwives and nursing associates, which sets standards and keeps the register.

The NMC publishes the Code and the standards of proficiency, runs the Test of Competence for internationally trained nurses, and requires registrants to revalidate every three years.

NMC Revalidation Guide

NMC Code

The professional standards for UK nurses, built on four themes.

The four themes are: prioritise people, practise effectively, preserve safety, and promote professionalism and trust. Part B scenario questions are, underneath the clinical detail, tests of whether you can apply the Code.

NMC Code questions

NMC confirmation

The final sign-off, on Form 10, that you have met all eight revalidation requirements.

Confirmation is obtained in the final year of your cycle before you submit online. It is the point at which a confirmer formally attests, based on the evidence you show them, that your revalidation is complete.

NMC confirmation: the final sign-off

NMC Form 6

The NMC's template for written reflective accounts, with set fields for what happened, what you learned and what changed.

Using the form keeps reflections structured and anonymous. Each of the five required accounts is recorded on its own Form 6, ready for the reflective discussion and possible NMC audit.

The NMC Form 6 reflective account

O

OSCE (Objective Structured Clinical Examination)

Part 2 of the NMC Test of Competence, a practical exam taken in the UK across a series of stations.

Where the CBT tests knowledge on a computer, the OSCE tests practical skills and communication in person. Candidates sit it after passing the CBT.

OSCE structure explained

P

Participatory CPD

CPD involving interaction with others, of which at least 20 of the required 35 hours must consist.

Examples include courses, workshops, conferences and supervised practice, as opposed to individual reading or e-learning. The distinction matters because the NMC sets a minimum of 20 participatory hours within the 35.

Participatory vs individual CPD

PDSA cycle

Plan, Do, Study, Act: a structured way to test a change on a small scale before wider roll-out.

You plan a change, try it small, study the result, and act on what you learn, repeating as needed. It is a common quality improvement method.

Quality improvement questions

Peak flow (PEFR)

Peak expiratory flow rate: the fastest speed a person can breathe out, used to monitor asthma control.

The reading is taken with the person standing, using the best of three forced blows on a calibrated meter. A result is read against the person's predicted or personal best value, with a falling trend signalling worsening asthma.

Peak flow OSCE station

Pearson VUE

The testing provider that runs the CBT at computer-based test centres worldwide.

The CBT is booked and sat through Pearson VUE. The centre provides an on-screen calculator and scratch paper; personal items are not allowed in the room.

CBT registration and fees

PPE (personal protective equipment)

Gloves, aprons, masks and eye protection selected according to the task and the risk of exposure.

The level of PPE is matched to the anticipated contact with blood or body fluids, not worn routinely regardless of task. It is put on and removed in a set order, with hand hygiene, to avoid contaminating yourself as you take it off.

PPE selection by risk

Practice hours

The 450 registered-practice hours a nurse must complete over three years to revalidate (900 for dual registration).

The hours must be worked as a registered nurse, but need not be clinical; teaching, management and research count. Those below the minimum, often after time out, may need to complete a return to practice course instead.

The 450-hour practice rule

Pressure ulcer categories

A 1–4 grading of pressure damage, from non-blanching redness to full-thickness loss exposing muscle or bone.

Category 1 is intact skin with non-blanching redness; category 4 involves full-thickness tissue loss with exposed bone, tendon or muscle. Ungradeable and deep tissue injury are separate descriptions used when the wound base is obscured.

Pressure area OSCE station

Professional indemnity arrangement

The cover against clinical negligence liability that every practising registrant must have in place.

For most employed nurses this comes through their employer's NHS or organisational cover; others rely on a union or a personal policy. You declare that an appropriate arrangement is in place as part of revalidation.

Professional indemnity arrangement

R

Raising concerns (whistleblowing)

A duty to report risks to patient safety, raising them internally first and escalating if not addressed.

The NMC Code requires you to act on concerns about safety, and the law protects workers who make protected disclosures. You raise the matter through your line manager or safeguarding lead first, escalating externally only if it is not acted on.

Raising concerns and whistleblowing questions

Reflective account

One of five written reflections required for revalidation, each on CPD, feedback or an event in your practice.

Each account describes what you learned and how it changed your practice, and links to the NMC Code. They are written on NMC Form 6 and must not include anything that identifies a patient or colleague.

The 5 written reflective accounts

Reflective discussion

A conversation about your five reflective accounts with another NMC registrant, recorded on Form 9.

The discussion partner must be on the NMC register, and it is often the same person as your confirmer. It gives assurance that reflection has taken place and is a required part of revalidation.

The reflective discussion

Registration renewal

The yearly declaration and fee that keeps you on the register, separate from three-yearly revalidation.

Renewal happens every year; revalidation happens once every three years and involves the full set of requirements. Confusing the two is a common reason nurses are caught out by their revalidation date.

Revalidation vs registration renewal

ReSPECT process

A form recording a person's agreed recommendations for a future emergency, wider than DNACPR alone.

ReSPECT (Recommended Summary Plan for Emergency Care and Treatment) captures what matters to the person and which treatments are or are not recommended. It is a recommendation, made with the person where possible, not a legally binding order.

End of life care questions

Revalidation

The process every UK nurse, midwife and nursing associate completes every three years to stay on the NMC register.

It replaced the older Prep system in 2016 and is built on eight requirements, including practice hours, CPD, feedback, written reflection and confirmation. It is a demonstration of continued fitness to practise, not a test.

What is NMC revalidation

S

Safeguarding

Protecting adults at risk and children from abuse or neglect by recognising concerns and raising them.

A nurse’s role is to recognise and raise a safeguarding concern promptly, not to investigate it or confront an alleged abuser. For children, the child’s welfare is paramount and you never promise secrecy.

Safeguarding questions

SBAR

A structured handover tool: Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation.

SBAR gives clear, concise, complete information when handing over or escalating a concern. The Recommendation, saying what you need, is the part most often forgotten.

SBAR handover questions

Sepsis Six

Six actions delivered within the first hour of recognising sepsis, remembered as three in and three out.

Given: oxygen, IV antibiotics and IV fluids. Taken or measured: blood cultures, lactate, and urine output. Sepsis is time-critical, so you escalate on suspicion rather than waiting for certainty.

Sepsis recognition questions

Slough

Soft, yellow or white dead tissue in a wound bed that slows healing and can be mistaken for pus or infection.

Slough is devitalised tissue, not pus, though a heavily sloughy wound may need debridement to progress. Describing the proportion of slough, granulation and any black necrotic tissue is part of a structured wound assessment.

Wound assessment OSCE station

SpO2 Scale 2

An oxygen saturation target of 88–92% for people at risk of type 2 respiratory failure, such as some with COPD.

It is used only when a clinician has decided the person needs it, because over-oxygenating a carbon dioxide retainer can reduce their drive to breathe. Most other acutely unwell adults target 94–98%.

Oxygen therapy questions

SSKIN bundle

A pressure ulcer prevention checklist: Surface, Skin inspection, Keep moving, Incontinence, Nutrition.

Used together, these reduce the chance of a pressure ulcer developing. The earliest sign of pressure damage is non-blanching redness over a bony area, which on darker skin may show as a change in tone rather than red.

Pressure ulcer questions

T

Test of Competence

The two-part NMC assessment (CBT plus OSCE) that internationally trained nurses pass to join the UK register.

Part 1 is the computer-based CBT, usually sat overseas; Part 2 is the practical OSCE, taken in the UK. Passing both demonstrates the level of competence the NMC expects for safe UK practice.

Test of Competence overview

Trial without catheter (TWOC)

Removing an indwelling urinary catheter to see whether the person can pass urine normally again.

After removal you monitor for the person passing urine and watch for retention, using a bladder scan if they cannot void. A failed TWOC, where the bladder does not empty, usually means the catheter is reinserted and a further attempt planned.

Catheter removal OSCE station

U

Units (insulin and heparin)

A measure of biological activity, always written in full because the abbreviation U is misread as a zero.

Standard insulin is 100 units/mL; heparin comes in several strengths, so you read the ampoule. Writing “U” has caused fatal ten-fold overdoses, so UK standards require “units” spelled out.

Insulin and heparin questions

V

VIP score (Visual Infusion Phlebitis)

A 0–5 score of a cannula site checked each shift for signs of phlebitis, guiding when to remove the device.

The score rises with redness, pain, swelling and a palpable cord along the vein. A score of 2 or more means the cannula is resited, because leaving an inflamed line risks infection and thrombophlebitis.

IV flush and VIP OSCE station

VTE (venous thromboembolism)

A clot forming in a vein (DVT) that can travel to the lungs (PE), a major preventable cause of hospital harm.

Every patient has a VTE risk assessment, with prevention through mobilisation, anti-embolism stockings or compression, and prophylactic anticoagulation. A swollen, painful calf suggests a DVT; sudden breathlessness suggests a PE.

VTE prevention questions

W

Waterlow / Braden score

Tools that score a patient’s risk of developing a pressure ulcer.

They weigh factors such as immobility, poor nutrition, moisture, friction and reduced sensation. A high score drives a prevention plan; the score is only useful if it changes care.

Pressure ulcer questions

WHO 5 Moments for Hand Hygiene

The five points at which hands must be cleaned around patient care to break the chain of infection.

The moments are: before touching a patient, before a clean or aseptic procedure, after a body fluid exposure risk, after touching a patient, and after touching their surroundings. Two come before contact, protecting the patient, and three after, protecting staff and the environment.

WHO 5 Moments of hand hygiene